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One Equals Zero

September 26th, 2006 | Posted by pftq in 42 | #

Proving 1=0, 2=1, and so on…

  Here is a pretty tricky proof that I’ve come across several times. It basically proves that a+b=a, which would mean that 1+0=0, 1=0, 2=1, and so on.

  I know very well how to prove this wrong, but do you? :P

a = b

ab = b²

ab - a² = b² - a²

a(b - a) = (b + a)(b - a)

a = b + a

If a and b are 1, then 1 = 1 + 1

1 = 2

0 = 1

Last Updated Dec 31st, 1969 | 1173 unique view(s)

Responses

  1. george said,
    Dec-29-2008, 11:56pm

    no

  2. Bobby said,
    Mar-16-2009, 06:23pm

    im probably a little late but at the part where a(b-a)=(b+a)(b-a)

    since b=a
    b-a=0 and if u multiply 0 each side you would end up with 0

  3. dave said,
    Mar-28-2009, 02:36pm

    your dividing by zero.  you cant divide both sides by (b-a). dividing by zero is undefined

  4. kenneth said,
    Jan-02-2012, 08:03pm

    a(b - a) = (b + a)(b - a)
    -(b - a)         -(b - a)
           a = (b + a)
          
    Its not equal

  5. kenneth said,
    Jan-02-2012, 08:15pm

    However

    "0 IS 1 number" on the number scale.
    In the begining is- 0 we now have 1 number. Oh its now 2. or is it three? Now im counting 4! ah <><>
    Its called Axiom of infinity i think?

    Its like the liers paradox.
    A war between what it is and what it means

  6. Avinash said,
    Feb-08-2014, 08:06am

    nice

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